My trilogy’s world is very low fantasy. I intended to have absolutely no magic aside from the gods and their abilities, but I’ve included some very low/soft magic elements that come up only a handful of times. Non-trilogy works set in this world thus far have absolutely no magic and the gods don’t show up or interfere.

Since I’ve established this world as being on the very low fantasy side, would I have to explain any (otherwise non-related) supernatural things within the fantasy system I’ve already established? Basically, only the gods and nature spirits have “supernatural” abilities, which the gods allow devout humans to have conditional use of.

I would like to have a story involving something like mind reading or dream projection(?), the kind of low(key) fantasy stuff you see in Stephen King or X-Files/Fringe—perhaps a single person with a unique ability that’s not world changing or OP or anything like that and could plausibly be explained away scientifically. If the story is set in an entirely different place (and maybe time) in my world where the gods or their religion have no influence and isn’t associated with anything in my trilogy where all the gods/magic/supernatural stuff happens, would that be like a lorehole (is that a thing?) or an inconsistency I should address? To use an ASOIAF analogy, it’s like if the Faith of the Seven and their gods were established as being the one true religion with the one true pantheon and everything was happening in Westeros. So if there’s a story set in Asshai where a bullied high school girl develops telekinesis and that’s pretty much the only (demonstrable) supernatural thing that happens and there was no Melisandre/R’hllor magic previously established—would that be an issue? Namely, if the Faith of the Seven is the one true religion/gods, and if magic/supernatural only comes from the gods, that would mean that the gods are causing/allowing/influencing/etc the supernatural things to happen. Would I then have to justify how/why the gods were somewhere/someplace they’re (canonically) not supposed to be? Or can it be ignored since it’s more like a standalone story that happens to be set in my world?

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At most, it would be “explained” by the characters through the context of the local religion(s), which is entirely unrelated to the “real” one from the trilogy. I’m fine with them interpreting things (incorrectly) from their perspective, but from a meta perspective it would contradict my trilogy lore unless I find a way to make it work. Is this something I can ignore, or does it require an explanation?

I suppose I could just set it in our world like every other similar story, but I like setting stories in my world for worldbuilding and I already have a place inspired by South Asia/Asshai(ASOIAF)/Lavender City(Pokémon)/Arkham(Lovecraft) that would be perfect for this kind of story—but it’s completely unrelated to anything in my trilogy aside from references. Another option would be to have it set in a different world than my trilogy, but that kinda defeats the point of making it secondary world.

Thank you.

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