If the following are true (or were even thought to be true):

-the blockade of Germany, begun by the British at the outset of WWI, was ultimately an important factor in making Germany unable to continue the war in 1918, and

-unrestricted submarine warfare may have been able to force the British out of the war,

then why didn't the Germans employ U-boats to try to lift the blockade? Was it because

the German high command and decisionmakers were out of touch and didn't realize the extent of the blockade's impact?

the blockade didn't have the impact it supposedly had?

the U-boats weren't as effective as believed, or would not have been against British warships blockading Germany?

It seems paradoxical to me that at least by 1917 the Germans believed or hoped they could force the British out of the war by sinking random ships in the Atlantic, yet they wouldn't use that same force to break a blockade they must have known by then was slowly starving them.

Source: reddit post

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