Amongst Greek and Roman societies, homosexuality was fairly common. Im assuming some anal sex would have occured between men in in sexual relationships. Of course these men would have also had wives they would have children with which means they would have sex with their wives every so often. But considering there was no soap and no condoms wouldnt a man who engaged in anal sex and then had sex with his wife later get her infected? Obviously the man in question would bathe, but there would still be bacteria entering the woman’s vagina/urinary tract.
Also during the middle ages, bathing/showering was not common. But children were still being born which meant people were still having sex. But i cant imagine a man who hadnt bathed in 6 months would do any favor for a womans urinary tract. So did women have super immune systems back in the day?
Because even nowadays they seem to be fairly common for women and most guys shower everyday.
Source: reddit post