Amongst Greek and Roman societies, homosexuality was fairly common. Im assuming some anal sex would have occured between men in in sexual relationships. Of course these men would have also had wives they would have children with which means they would have sex with their wives every so often. But considering there was no soap and no condoms wouldnt a man who engaged in anal sex and then had sex with his wife later get her infected? Obviously the man in question would bathe, but there would still be bacteria entering the woman’s vagina/urinary tract.

Also during the middle ages, bathing/showering was not common. But children were still being born which meant people were still having sex. But i cant imagine a man who hadnt bathed in 6 months would do any favor for a womans urinary tract. So did women have super immune systems back in the day?

Because even nowadays they seem to be fairly common for women and most guys shower everyday.

Source: reddit post


Read:  We are Israeli Consul General Shlomi Kofman & UC Berkeley Professor of Jewish History John Efron, here to answer questions about the Holocaust, European Jews in WWII, & the Righteous Among the Nations. May 2nd is Yom HaShoah, a day of commemoration for those lost in the Holocaust - Ask Us Anything!

LEAVE A REPLY

Please enter your comment!
Please enter your name here