Question about the death of the historical Richard III of England

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From what I've read, the remains of the historical Richard III were recovered from under a parking lot in 2012. The bones show signs of weapon injury consistent with the apparently common Medieval practice of swarm-killing, in which a fighter (often a commoner soldier) is struck by multiple attackers from multiple sides at roughly the same time. There is also evidence of something not seen much in pre-Medieval bones, which is continued weapon attacks on a dead opponent's body.

One thing that doesn't fit this picture is that Richard appears to have been stabbed in the buttock with a dagger. It's unclear whether this was an initial sneak attack intended to make him an easier target for a swarm death, or it was some sort of symbollic postmortal attack as his remains were on the ground or slung naked over a horse (as a historical record from the time asserts it was).

But then there are some bones recovered from between 1350 and 1050 BCE, which is significantly earlier than any culture we'd associate with today's England. Three men were buried together, with two having been killed by weapon violence while for the third it's unclear as there is no bone damage consistent with weapon injury–which may only mean that in killing him any weapon did not damage any bones. The two confirmed weapon-killed men show signs of also having been stabbed in one of their buttocks, although with what weapon is unclear. It was likely a stone-tipped spear or a stone-tipped arrow, but the stone heads of any such weapons have not been recovered. Needless to say any wooden shaft would be long decomposed out of existence.

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Does anyone know anything about this odd business of stabbing a guy in the ass? That it occurred in two such disparate cases must mean something, so any historiographic commentary would be helpful to me here.

Source: reddit post


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