Franco didn't like the idea of the Republic and I've never been able to find anything concrete as to why he disliked the democratic aspects of it. His beliefs surrounding communism were pretty clear and he stated them in the years leading up to the Spanish Civil War. During the strikes in 1934 in which workers, communists, and anarchist led uprisings across Madrid, Barcelona, and Asturias, he once said "la revolución había sido concienzudamente preparada por agentes de Moscú"(The revolution had been consciously prepared by agents of Moscow). He also continued to make such statements after WWII since he viewed the Civil War as a victory against communism and used that to build an alliance with the West when he realized that he no longer had fascists allies for support and needed legitimacy.

Where did his beliefs for being anti-democracy come from? Why did he react so strongly to the idea of the Republic? He was pretty young during the 30s. He played politics with king Alfonson to help him get his general position when his associates were much older. Why was he not open to the idea of democracy like other young people were?

My second question has to with the autonomous arrangments that the Republic was preparing on the eve of the war. These arrangements, which are somewhat captured in how Spain is currently structured today, set up Spain in a federal way. These arrangments were aimed at regions of Spain that were not originally part of Castille. Particularly to the Basque Country and Catalonia who sided with the absolutists Carlists in the previous century in exchange for their foral rights. The forals(similiar to charters) had been used to help promote colonization across the peninsula following the Reconquests. When Castille began consolidating in the previous centuries, it eliminated these foral rights apart from a few regions.

Read:  On Beard, Gibbon, Mommsen, and Roman history writing.

During the Second Republic, these agreements were being made for the Basque Country, Catalonia, and Galicia. Andalucia was also in the process of making one. My question is why did Galicia and Andalucia follow suit? From what I've read, although Galicia had been a kingdom before eventually becoming a part of León and Castille, it had been pretty much on the sidelines for much of the countries history and pretty poor. The regional language, Galician, was seen as the language of fishermen and peasants. Galician noblemen had been replaced by those from Castille during the medieval period which elevated the language of Castille in the local courts. To my knowledge, Galician institutions didn't continue to exist as they were integrated into the Castillian court. The same for Andalusia minus the local language since it didn't have one and it had been repopulated following the Reconquest. Compared to Galicia, it had been much more important and was wealthier at one point in the countries history. Who were the ones pushing for such arrangments and why?

Source: reddit post


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