This is a continuation of my earlier post Are we sure that the Reply of the Zaporozhian Cossacks actually happened? If so, why don't the Ottomans keep any records of it?.

I know that some of the slaves stolen by the Tatar slave raids and sold in the Ottoman slave markets were sex slaves, and some rose to high position as concubines to the Ottoman Sultans, such as Roxelana. Also, the Janissaries started out as being the kidnapped young Christian boys who were educated into Islam and educated into an elite military force.

But did the Ottomans and Tatars only partake in slave trading to obtain sex slaves Janissaries, or were there other purposes they were used for?:

  • Considering that the Muslim Ottomans/Tatars were kidnapping Christian Russians/Ukrainians/Poles as slaves, did they face issues with the non-Janissary slaves being unruly due to religious differences?
  • Did they use slaves for Plantation agriculture, like in the Atlantic slave trade or the Ancient Roman Latifundia?
  • Did they use the slaves in Secondary industry, similar to how some present-day sweatshops in South Asia and Sub-Saharan Africa are dependent on Debt bondage to supply unpaid labour?
  • Was there an abolitionist movement among the Ottomans or the Tatars?
  • Did the Ottoman/Tatar slave trade create a situation like in the Roman Empire and the CSA where the free citizens who couldn't afford slaves were screwed?:
    • The poor free citizens couldn't afford slaves for their labour.
    • But at the same time, the poor free citizens could not compete with slave labour on price.
  • The last major slave raid took place in 1769, during the Russo-Turkish War), after which Russia was powerful enough to keep the Ottomans out of present-day Ukraine (and the Tatars lost their state). Did the inability to procure slaves have a significant effect on the Ottoman economy and society?
Read:  The Spectrum Game

Source: reddit post


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