So Today I was watching a Joe Rogan Podcast with Neil DeGrasse Tyson. In the that podcast Neil at some point is explaining to Joe the affects European colonization had on North/South America, detailing to some extent the devastation European disease brought to the Americas which killed approximately 90% of the Native American population. A scale on which history knows no other. So earlier in the podcast Neil talks about the separation of species ( during the Ice age when people crossed The Bering Land Bridge) and how this was a unique point in history when there were essentially two separate world's who knew nothing of one another. This separation is one if not the single most driving force in the reason why European disease sweeped through The Americas the way it did. Soon after that Neil follows up with how it is a possibly that syphilis might have came from the new world. That's when a very interesting question got into my head. "Syphilis? That's it? Separated for several thousand years we kill 90% of the population with a whole grab bag of dieses yet what we got from them was "possibly" syphilis, how is that possible? The main explanation out there is that Europeans simply had stronger immune systems a product of their environment and daily lifestyles ( larger living communities, Livestock/Cattle ect..) .My problem is native Americans also were known to live in huge communities (Mayans, Aztecs, Incas ect..) although not quite the same as the townships, ect.. of their western counterparts but still where large groups of people would gather and have contact. I cannot reasonably see how it is possible that i could simply go to another country which i have never been and pick up native diseases and possibly die and spread that diseases (Malaria, Schistosomiasis, ebola ect) in 2019. Yet at a time where two separate populations of humans are meeting after thousands of years of seperation at a time with much older medicines, the disparities are so drastically different between their effect on us and our effect on them that is seems unreasonable… my theory is what if the disparities weren't as big as we think? What if the worst already came thru. Through history we see many instances factual and debateable when people from the the known world discovered and or migrated to the new world. Yet we see no instances (that I'm aware of) where people from the new world discovered the old..is it not possible, that some events in history could be explained by people accidentally coming from the new world as Columbus did trying to discover india but did not have the means, intentions, knowledge or effect to have made it into the history books, similar to what Leif Erickson did unaware of the significance of their discovery. What if even though they aren't in the history books the effects they had are. I read an article today about how the the bubonic plague has been traced to have originated from Asia based on dna testing https://www.medicalnewstoday.com/articles/206309.php. it's funny how I read this today considering in the podcast Neil DeGrasse mentions how the people crossing The Bering Land Bridge were more than likely people of Asian decent and when the bridge went back up they could only mix with there own genes. So if they populated the Americas their off spring would be of Asian decent all the way until colonization of the americas, although not retaining only Asian features do to micro evolution (Darwanism) after thousands of years in a different enviorment. Now for my question would it not be possible for something like the emergence of The Black Plague to be caused by one person or a group of people going to "The Old World"? Are there any other historical events that could possibly be explained by the idea that native Americans found their way to the "The Known world" .. precolonization?
Source: reddit post